Re: What percentage of kernel is non-paid work?
From: David Schwartz (davids_at_webmaster.com)
Date: 06/23/05
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Date: Thu, 23 Jun 2005 11:14:54 -0700
"Robert Redelmeier" <redelm@ev1.net.invalid> wrote in message
news:3bAue.1722$W74.152@newssvr30.news.prodigy.com...
> Floyd L. Davidson <floyd@barrow.com> wrote:
>> That they *knew* it wasn't legally valid didn't make it
>> less of a condition of employment to 99.9% of the people
>> who received the same set of papers over the years.
> Why would an "assign everything" agreement not be legally
> valid? Perhaps in a non(employment at will) state, or when
> there is specific statute (CA?) But otherwise, there is
> freedom of contract.
Strangely, courts frequently fail to uphold such clauses under the logic
that they're unreasonable. The general rationale is that the employer has
undue power to set the terms of the contract.
In any event, the contract can't change Federal law, and it's Federal
law that determines who the owner of a copyrightable work is for copyright
purposes. That doesn't mean you can't assign ownership, but the contract
can't make the employer the author if the legal requirements for it to be
the author aren't satisfied.
Though nothing happens if they claim authorship. People have tried to
invalidate copyrights and patents on the grounds that authorship was
deliberately misrepresented as a company rather than the individual authors.
Even when courts have held that the authorship was deliberately
misrepresented, courts have never (to my knowledge) held that this
invalidated the copyright or patent against a challenge by a third party.
DS
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